A player in our game has come up with an interesting defense:

He has developed a spell that turns him intangible. Our general question is: Does that mean his spells (when intangible) require a requisite to affect non-tangible targets?
-The example of the roman soldier (ghost) that can only affect the world through his gladius comes to mind. The thought of spells that affect ghosts usually need a mentem requisite to do anything, come to mind as well.

There are many ways one can become intangible, from Muto Corpus (Auram) to turn into Air, to Perdo Corpus to make the body lose tangibility. The means used by the target to become intangible determine how it can be affected, not the means used by the caster - in fact, whether the caster is intangible or not has no impact whatsoever. A target that has turned into air can be affected by Rego Auram, but not by a sword. A target who has lost tangibility thanks to a Perdo Corpus spell can be affected by neither.

I'm with Ezzelino on this one. We are not playing That Other Game (tm), where "going intangible" is like going to another level of a Regio. Now, if after you had done a lot of Original Research to get a spell to do "that", you wanted to cast a spell on someone on a "lower level", then yes.

Look at it like Shapechanging , unless you are House Bjornaer , you are not the actual animal you change into.
So if you become a Ghost version of yourself , unless through a specific Mystery Initiation , similar to the Bjorn-agains ,
you are not considered an actual ghost by essential nature definition.

Unless Bjorner, you are still affected by corpus.

Whether an elemental, a rat, a plant or a plank of wood.

Does that mean his spells (when intangible) require a requisite to affect tangible targets?

It appears that I was misunderstood.

The magi who turns himself intangible (like a ghost), casts spells at someone else....
Do you think that the intangible magi must use a requisite to "hit" his targets???

In other words: If he (the intangible magi) wants to blast yon troll with a PoF, does his spell need a requisite to affect the troll?

No. The only limitations on casting would be physical and sensory.
If he were a rock , he could not target anyone he could not sense or use Voice and Gestures.
Being insubtantial , he can still cast as normal without needing any requisites.

Heck, we have rules for Mages to become Actual Ghosts (The Living Ghost Mystery/Immortality path). They don't need a special prereq to cast their magic, why would a mage faking it need one?

I would say that he becomes totally impervious to mundane damage, but that spells still affect him normally, and spirits will have fun with him. Pitsdim could kill him for good, for example.


If he is intangible, I don't think he can speak, so he will be casting silently. Gestures are more of a judgment call, depending on the exact spell he developed. But his spells are as they always were : they need the same requisite, if any, to affect intangible target that they always needed. For instance, a ghost is Mentem, so only Mentem can affect them directly, and being ghost they are pretty much unaffected by most indirect damaging spells, so you need Mentem to affect them at all. Him being intangible does not change that: the ghost still doesn't have a Corpus body to affect, is still unaffected by Ignem fire, and so on.

Now, if he wants to punch a ghost or stick a knife into one, mostly that won't work unless he specifically turned himself intangible with a MuCo(Me) effect, and that holds along the line : if his intangible effect turn him into the one Form another intangible is made of, he might affect it directly, otherwise no luck.

Thank you.

My first thought here is that he isn't a Ghost, anymore than a magi who transforms into a wolf, isn't a wolf (Exception...)