Warding vs a target with magic resist

Quick question:

If I'm protected by a ReTe (ward vs weaponry, vague example), would that spell need to penetrate the target's magic resistance (parma or otherwise) to actually protect me? Thanks

What about a ReCo (ward vs the person, example Magi of Hermes)

If the weapon is protected by magic resistance then yes, the ward has to penetrate said resistance.

Again, if the person is protected by magic resistance (e.g. a hermetic magus) then the ward has to penetrate.

It is a very common houserule to say that wards don't need to penetrate because otherwise you can only ward against creatures over whom you already have an overwhelming advantage.

Only if the sword is protected by its wielder's Magic Resistance. According to "The Functioning of Magic Resistance" on p. 85 of ArM5, it doesn't look like a sword would normally benefit from that protection. Only if it were the wielder's Talisman or something. Normally, it looks to me like your ward would Just Work (TM).

That would have to penetrate vs. any magus who had either a Parma Magica or any other magical effect (such as a Longevity Ritual or any personal range Corpus spells).

Uh? A mundane under, say, a Longevity Ritual is blocked by any ReCo ward vs. people, even one with negative penetration.

I agree with that. Having no Magic Resistance is very different from having a Magic Resistance of zero. No Magic Resistance means, effectively, a Magic Resistance of minus infinity. That's what mundanes have.

Aren't we just re-hashing this?

No, this is quite different, and I don't understand why you mention it. Unless you're trying to shut down the discussion for some reason.

I thought the discussion was over, anyway. Quick question, quick answers, done.